Home Bias
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In short
Home bias is the tendency to hold far more of one's own country's assets than that country's share of world markets would suggest.
Scope. MarketClue publishes no target geographic allocation, does not describe any portfolio as under- or over-diversified internationally, and does not tell any reader where to invest. This article explains what home bias is, how large it has been measured to be, what the diversification arithmetic says, and the reasons it may be less irrational than it looks. All figures use the illustrative teaching parameters fixed on this pillar's hub and are not forecasts.
It is one of the most robustly documented patterns in international finance and one of the least settled.
How large it was measured to be
The finding that named the phenomenon appeared in 1991. French and Poterba estimated the equity holdings of investors in three countries and found more than 98% of Japanese investors' equity portfolios held domestically, 94% for the United States and 82% for Britain — at a time when the US market was less than half of global equity market value.
Their inference is the part worth carrying. Working backwards from the holdings, they showed that portfolios weighted that heavily toward home implied investors expected their domestic market to outperform foreign markets by several hundred basis points a year — an expectation nobody had stated and few would defend if asked directly. The allocation contained a forecast its holders had not consciously made.
Home bias has fallen since and has not gone away, and it appears in every market that has been examined rather than in any particular one.
What the arithmetic says the bias costs
Combining two equity markets of equal variability, on the hub parameters:
| Correlation between the two markets | Combined standard deviation | Reduction against a single market at 16.00% |
|---|---|---|
| 0.00 | 11.31% | 4.69 pp |
| 0.30 | 12.90% | 3.10 pp |
| 0.50 | 13.86% | 2.14 pp |
| 0.70 | 14.75% | 1.25 pp |
| 0.85 | 15.39% | 0.61 pp |
| 0.95 | 15.80% | 0.20 pp |
Worked example — the benefit is real and it is shrinking for a reason. At a correlation of 0.50 — roughly the level the 1991 work was written against — combining two markets removes 2.14 percentage points of variability. At 0.85 it removes 0.61. A rise in correlation from 0.50 to 0.85 removes 71% of the benefit, and a rise to 0.95 removes 91% of it. Since markets have become more integrated over the period in which home bias has been criticised, the size of the prize has been falling at the same time as the criticism has been made. That does not make the criticism wrong. A benefit of 0.61 percentage points is still a benefit and it costs nothing to obtain. But an argument that assumes the correlations of thirty years ago overstates what international diversification now buys, and this portal states the sensitivity rather than the conclusion. (Equal weights in two markets of equal variability: combined standard deviation = 16% × √((1 + ρ) ÷ 2).)
The overweight, expressed plainly
The size of the distortion depends entirely on how large the home market is.
| If the home market is this share of global market value | Then a wholly domestic portfolio overweights it by |
|---|---|
| 2% | 50× |
| 5% | 20× |
| 10% | 10× |
| 25% | 4× |
| 60% | 1.7× |
The same behaviour is a rounding error for an investor in a very large market and an extreme concentration for an investor in a small one — so "home bias" describes one habit with wildly different consequences depending on where the person lives.
Five reasons it may not be irrational
Liabilities are denominated at home. Someone who will spend in their own currency has a real exposure that domestic assets match. This is the strongest of the five and it is frequently omitted, because it means a globally weighted portfolio is not automatically the neutral position for a person with local obligations.
Currency risk is added by foreign holdings, which is the subject of the next article and is a genuine cost rather than an excuse.
Costs, taxes and access differ, and tax is parked to Annex A throughout this portal.
Information and familiarity. Investors know more about companies operating around them. Whether that is a real informational advantage or a feeling of one is the contested part.
Domestic indices may already carry global exposure. A large domestic company earning most of its revenue abroad supplies foreign economic exposure without foreign listing — so measuring diversification by the listing location of holdings can overstate how concentrated a portfolio actually is.
Worked example
What remains after all five, without recommending anything. The explanations account for some of the bias and not the magnitude of it. A liability argument might justify a domestic tilt; it does not obviously justify 94%, and it does not explain why the tilt is similar in size across countries whose situations differ enormously. The honest position is that home bias is partly rational and partly not, that the rational part is larger than the puzzle literature originally allowed, and that nobody has produced a decomposition everyone accepts. MarketClue sets no target geographic weight and does not describe any portfolio's geographic composition as correct or incorrect.
Frequently asked
8 questions
What is home bias?
Holding far more of one's own country's assets than that country's share of world markets would suggest. It is documented in every market that has been examined.
How large was it measured to be?
French and Poterba estimated in 1991 that more than 98% of Japanese investors' equity portfolios were domestic, along with 94% for the United States and 82% for Britain — when the US market was less than half of global equity value.
What did that imply about expectations?
Working backwards, holdings that concentrated implied investors expected their domestic market to outperform foreign markets by several hundred basis points a year — a forecast nobody had stated. The allocation contained a view its holders had not consciously formed.
How much does international diversification reduce risk?
It depends entirely on correlation. Combining two equally variable markets removes 2.14 percentage points of variability at a correlation of 0.50, and 0.61 points at 0.85.
Has the benefit changed?
It has shrunk as markets have become more integrated. A rise in correlation from 0.50 to 0.85 removes 71% of the benefit; a rise to 0.95 removes 91%. The prize has been falling over the same period the criticism has been made.
Does that mean the criticism is wrong?
No. A 0.61-point reduction is still a reduction and costs nothing to obtain. But an argument built on the correlations of thirty years ago overstates what international diversification now buys.
Is home bias always the same size problem?
No. A wholly domestic portfolio overweights a market that is 60% of global value by 1.7 times and one that is 2% of global value by 50 times. The same habit is a rounding error in one country and an extreme concentration in another.
Are there good reasons for it?
Several, and the strongest is usually omitted: liabilities are denominated at home, so someone who will spend in their own currency has a real exposure that domestic assets match. Currency risk, costs, familiarity and the global revenue of domestic companies account for more. Together they explain some of the bias but not its magnitude.
References
- French and Poterba (1991) — Investor Diversification and International Equity Markets, NBER Working Paper 3609 (published in the American Economic Review 81(2), 222–226) —
- European Central Bank Working Paper 685 — Home Bias in Global Bond and Equity Markets: The Role of Real Exchange Rate Volatility —
- Coval and Moskowitz (1999) — Home Bias at Home: Local Equity Preference in Domestic Portfolios, Journal of Finance 54(6) (the familiarity explanation) —
Educational and informational only — not investment advice, a recommendation, or an offer to buy or sell any security. Investing involves risk, including the possible loss of principal. Worked examples use fictional companies and figures.