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Fees, Lock-Ups, and Why the Reported Returns Are Not Comparable

Intermediate13 min readLesson 2 of 13

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In short

Three things make alternatives structurally different from public-market investing, and all three are arithmetic rather than opinion: the fees are layered and larger, the money is committed for years, and the returns are measured on a basis that cannot be compared with a public-market return.

Reading-order note. The v8 architecture places this article last, as #13. It is drafted second, because the pillar directive requires it to be consistently fee- and risk-forward and an article about fees placed last cannot inform the eleven before it. The figures below are this pillar's single arithmetic source, and every subsequent article references rather than re-derives them — the discipline Pillar 20 #6 established after the reverse ordering produced a correction there.

This article establishes all three, because the opening article showed the category has no shared properties — and these three features are the closest thing to one.

The fee stack, computed

The standard structure is a management fee plus a performance fee, and its arithmetic is worth doing rather than describing. Management fee, conventionally around 2% annually — and critically, often charged on committed capital rather than invested capital, so a fee accrues on money the manager has not yet deployed. Performance fee or carried interest, conventionally 20% of profits above a hurdle, often 8%. And frequently a third layer — a feeder fund, platform, or fund-of-funds charge of around 1%, which is the layer most retail-accessible structures add. The reference table below is computed and is this pillar's single source. It assumes a ten-year fund at 2% and 20% over an 8% hurdle, with the management fee applied to the annual return and carry taken on the terminal value in excess of an 8% compounded hurdle.

Gross return p.a.Gross multipleNet multipleNet return p.a.Total drag
8%2.16×1.79×6.0%2.0 pp
10%2.59×2.16×8.0%2.0 pp
12%3.11×2.51×9.6%2.4 pp
15%4.05×3.15×12.1%2.9 pp
20%6.19×4.62×16.5%3.5 pp

Three observations, of which the second is the one to carry. The drag rises with performance, because the performance fee takes a share of a larger profit — which is the structure working as designed rather than a flaw. And the right way to express the cost is as a share of the profit, not as a percentage of assets. At a 15% gross return over ten years, gross profit is 305% and the investor keeps 215%so the fee structure took 29% of the profit. That figure is the honest one, and it appears in no fee table anywhere. And a third layer changes it materially: adding a 1% feeder charge to the 15% case reduces the net return from 12.1% to 11.3%, and at a 10% gross return the net falls from 8.0% to 7.0%the retail-access layer costs roughly a tenth of the net return at ordinary performance levels.

Lock-ups, and the three reasons the returns are not comparable

Committed capital is not invested capital, and the distinction has consequences. A fund typically calls capital over its first several years and returns it over the following several, with a total life around ten years. Four practical effects. You cannot choose when the money leaves. Capital calls arrive on the manager's schedule, so a committed investor must hold liquid reserves against them — which means the effective allocation is larger than the amount invested at any moment. You cannot exit. Secondary markets for fund interests exist and transact at discounts, so an early exit is available at a price. The J-curve: fees are charged from the start while gains arrive later, so reported performance is typically negative in early years — which is normal, and is also why a short track record says almost nothing. And the commitment outlasts most people's plans. A ten-year lock-up is longer than many readers' job tenure, housing situation, or stated investment horizon. Now the measurement problem, which is the most important content in this pillar and the least widely understood. Private-market returns are usually quoted as an internal rate of return, and an IRR is not comparable to a public-market total return. Three separate reasons, and they stack. IRR is sensitive to timing in ways a time-weighted return is not. Because the manager controls when capital is called and returned, an early distribution can lift a reported IRR substantially without improving the total money returned — which is why the same fund can show an impressive IRR and an unimpressive multiple, and why both figures should always be read together. Unrealised holdings are valued by appraisal rather than by trading. Pillar 20 established what follows: appraisal-based valuation produces smooth series, so reported volatility and reported drawdowns understate what a traded market would have shown. Smoothness in a chart is not stability in an asset, and in private markets a meaningful share of a reported return may be unrealised marks rather than money received. And the aggregate statistics are survivorship-affected. Funds that failed report less completely or stop reporting, and databases are voluntary — so an industry average describes the funds that survived to be counted. The consequence is a rule worth applying to every figure in this pillar: ask whether it is realised or marked, whether it is an IRR or a multiple, and whether it is net of every layer. A gross IRR on partly unrealised holdings from a voluntary database is three distortions in one number.

Worked example

Worked example

Worked example (fictional; all figures computed). Thornwell Partners raises a ten-year fund. Priya commits $500,000. The fund performs well: 15% gross annually. Gross, her commitment would grow to 4.05× — about $2.02 million. After 2% management and 20% carry over the 8% hurdle, she receives 3.15×, or roughly $1.57 million — a net 12.1% annually. The manager's skill produced $1.52 million of gross profit and Priya kept $1.07 million of it: the fee structure took 29%. Now through a feeder. Had she accessed the same fund through a platform charging an additional 1%, her net return falls to 11.3%about $115,000 less, for the access. Now the commitment reality. Capital is called unpredictably over five years, so she holds reserves she cannot invest elsewhere; reported performance is negative for the first three years while fees accrue against unrealised holdings; and at year four, needing liquidity, she finds a secondary buyer at a 20% discount to stated value — and the stated value was itself an appraisal. And the reporting. At year six the fund reports a 19% IRR. That figure is accurate and reflects an early distribution from one profitable exit; the multiple at that point is 1.4×, and 60% of the remaining value is unrealised marks. Two true numbers, describing very different things, and only one of them is money she has received. (All names fictional; figures computed from the table above.)

Frequently asked

9 questions

What is the standard fee structure?

Around 2% annually in management fees plus 20% of profits above a hurdle, often 8%. Retail-accessible structures frequently add a third layer of about 1% for the feeder, platform, or fund-of-funds.

Why does it matter whether fees are charged on committed or invested capital?

Because a fee on committed capital accrues on money the manager hasn't yet deployed — you pay on capital that isn't working.

How much do the fees actually take?

Expressed the honest way — as a share of profit rather than a percentage of assets — a 15% gross return over ten years produces 305% gross profit of which the investor keeps 215%. The fee structure took 29% of the profit. That figure appears in no fee table.

What does the extra retail-access layer cost?

Roughly a tenth of the net return at ordinary performance levels. Adding 1% to the 15% case cuts the net from 12.1% to 11.3%; at a 10% gross return it cuts 8.0% to 7.0%.

What is the J-curve?

Fees are charged from the start while gains arrive later, so reported performance is typically negative in early years. That's normal — and it's also why a short track record says almost nothing.

Can I get out early?

Secondary markets for fund interests exist and transact at discounts, so an early exit is available at a price. Note that the discount applies to a stated value that was itself an appraisal.

Why isn't an IRR comparable to a fund's published return?

Three stacked reasons. IRR is timing-sensitive in ways a time-weighted return isn't, and the manager controls the timing — so an early distribution can lift a reported IRR substantially without improving the total money returned. Unrealised holdings are valued by appraisal rather than trading, so reported volatility and drawdowns understate what a traded market would show. And the aggregate statistics are survivorship-affected, because failed funds report less completely and databases are voluntary.

So how should I read any return figure here?

Ask three things: is it realised or marked, is it an IRR or a multiple, and is it net of every layer? A gross IRR on partly unrealised holdings from a voluntary database is three distortions in one number.

Can a fund show a great IRR and a mediocre result?

Yes, and it's common enough that both figures should always be read together. On the illustration here, a 19% IRR sits alongside a 1.4× multiple with 60% of remaining value unrealised — two true numbers describing very different things, and only one of them is money received.

References

Educational and informational only — not investment advice, a recommendation, or an offer to buy or sell any security. Investing involves risk, including the possible loss of principal. Worked examples use fictional companies and figures.